How should the Year of Budget Authority be derived and what is considered “NEW”? The following are some of the interpretations I’m hearing at our agency:
1. Any outlay in the first year of an appropriation is NEW and all outlays in subsequent years are BAL (regardless of when it’s apportioned)
2. An outlay is considered NEW in the year it becomes available. For example, we receive an appropriation in 2012 for $1 million. $400,000 is unapportioned and reserved for 2013. In 2013 when the $400,000 is apportioned/committed/obligated and has an outlay in 2013, it is considered NEW since it didn’t become available until 2013. Or would this be considered BAL since the money was appropriated in 2012?
3. An outlay is considered NEW if the outlay is from money obligated in the first year of the appropriation. For example, resources are appropriated, apportioned, committed and obligated in the first year, but the outlay for that obligation doesn’t take place until the next year. Since the outlay is from money obligated in the first year of the appropriation, it is considered NEW.
Thanks in advance